Chapter 033 : Laparoscopic Retroperitoneal Lymphadenectomy for Testicular Tumors

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A 23-year old man presented after undergoing transscrotal orchiectomy for presumed hydrocele. Pathologic examination reveals embryonal carcinoma with vascular invasion. Serum levels of tumor markers and results of physical examination and CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are normal. Which of the following approaches is appropriate?

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Late relapse is a feature most commonly associated with:

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422220

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A 25-year-old man with a stage IIC nonseminomatous germ cell tumor (NSGCT) has completed primary platinum-based chemotherapy. Tumor marker levels have normalized according to appropriate half-life, and he underwent bilateral postchemotherapy RPLND. Final pathologic analysis revealed a focus of yolk sac tumor. Appropriate therapy at this point is:

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A 20-year-old man with clinical stage I NSGCT undergoes laparoscopic RPLND. During surgery a 2-cm lymph node is encountered. Which of the following is the next step?

Select the correct answer(s).

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120

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The most common cause of open conversion during laparoscopic RPLND is:

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120

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Two weeks after laparoscopic RPLND a patient complains of abdominal distention and emesis. CT reveals ascites. Diagnostic paracentesis confirms the diagnosis of chylous ascites. The next best step is:

Select the correct answer(s).

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422224

120

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A 20-year-old man undergoes laparoscopic RPLND after right radical orchiectomy for an NSGCT. All of the following regions should be dissected clear of all lymphatic tissue EXCEPT:

Select the correct answer(s).

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120

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Chapter 033 : Laparoscopic Retroperitoneal Lymphadenectomy for Testicular Tumors

Question 1 of 1

Time Left

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

Late relapse is a feature most commonly associated with:

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

A 20-year-old man with clinical stage I NSGCT undergoes laparoscopic RPLND. During surgery a 2-cm lymph node is encountered. Which of the following is the next step?

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

The most common cause of open conversion during laparoscopic RPLND is:

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

Two weeks after laparoscopic RPLND a patient complains of abdominal distention and emesis. CT reveals ascites. Diagnostic paracentesis confirms the diagnosis of chylous ascites. The next best step is:

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

A 20-year-old man undergoes laparoscopic RPLND after right radical orchiectomy for an NSGCT. All of the following regions should be dissected clear of all lymphatic tissue EXCEPT:

Select the correct answer(s).

(0/0)

Potential advantages to laparoscopic compared with open RPLND include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select the correct answer(s).

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